Mock TEST ATI TEAS Version 7 Set 2
ATI TEAS Version 7 – Mock Test
Reading
& English Language Usage (100 Questions)
READING
(Questions 1–50)
Passage
1
The following is an excerpt from a
hospital discharge instruction sheet.
"After your surgical procedure,
it is important to monitor your incision site daily. Signs of infection include
increased redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage. You may shower 48 hours after
surgery, but do not submerge the incision in water (no baths, pools, or hot
tubs) for 2 weeks. If you develop a fever over 101°F (38.3°C), contact your
surgeon immediately."
1.
According to the passage, when may a patient shower?
A. Immediately after surgery
B. 24 hours after surgery
C. 48 hours after surgery
D. 2 weeks after surgery
2.
Which of the following is listed as a sign of infection?
A. Bruising
B. Numbness
C. Swelling
D. Itching
3.
What should the patient do if they develop a fever of 102°F?
A. Wait 24 hours
B. Take ibuprofen and rest
C. Contact the surgeon immediately
D. Submerge the incision in cool water
4.
The word "submerge" most nearly means:
A. Wash gently
B. Place under water
C. Dry thoroughly
D. Cover with a bandage
Passage
2
The following is from a memo to
nursing staff.
"Effective next Monday, all
medication carts must be locked when not in active use. Recent audits revealed
three instances of unlocked carts during shift changes. This poses a significant
safety risk. Please remind all team members that leaving a cart unlocked
violates hospital policy and may result in disciplinary action."
5.
What is the main purpose of this memo?
A. To congratulate staff on good
performance
B. To announce a new policy about locking medication carts
C. To describe the results of patient satisfaction surveys
D. To schedule a training session
6.
How many instances of unlocked carts were found?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
7.
Which of the following can be inferred?
A. Staff were previously allowed to
leave carts unlocked.
B. The audits were conducted without staff knowledge.
C. Patient safety is a concern.
D. Disciplinary action has already been taken.
8.
The word "violates" most nearly means:
A. Supports
B. Explains
C. Breaks
D. Creates
Passage
3
Excerpt from a research abstract on
hand hygiene.
"Healthcare-associated
infections (HAIs) affect 1 in 31 hospital patients on any given day. This study
evaluated the impact of a real-time electronic hand hygiene monitoring system
in a 300-bed community hospital. Over six months, compliance increased from 58%
to 87%. During the same period, HAI rates dropped by 34%."
9.
What is the primary finding of this study?
A. Hand hygiene is difficult to
monitor.
B. Electronic monitoring improved compliance and reduced infections.
C. Community hospitals have higher infection rates.
D. Six months is too short to measure change.
10.
Before the intervention, hand hygiene compliance was:
A. 34%
B. 58%
C. 87%
D. 31%
11.
The abbreviation "HAIs" stands for:
A. Hospital-acquired infections
B. Healthcare-associated infections
C. Hand hygiene inspection scores
D. High-acuity illness surveys
12.
Which of the following is a conclusion supported by the passage?
A. All hospitals should adopt
electronic monitoring.
B. Improved hand hygiene may reduce infection rates.
C. Nurses are primarily responsible for infections.
D. Patient outcomes did not change.
Passage
4
Patient education paragraph about
hypertension.
"Blood pressure is measured in
two numbers: systolic (pressure during heartbeats) and diastolic (pressure
between beats). Normal blood pressure is below 120/80 mmHg. Hypertension, or
high blood pressure, is often called the 'silent killer' because it has no
symptoms but can lead to heart attack, stroke, and kidney disease."
13.
According to the passage, why is hypertension called the "silent
killer"?
A. It causes hearing loss.
B. It has no symptoms.
C. It only affects older adults.
D. It cannot be treated.
14.
Systolic pressure measures pressure during:
A. Rest between beats
B. Heartbeats
C. Sleep
D. Exercise
15.
Which of the following blood pressure readings is classified as normal?
A. 130/85
B. 118/76
C. 140/90
D. 122/88
16.
The passage implies that untreated hypertension may lead to:
A. Improved kidney function
B. Weight loss
C. Stroke
D. Lower heart rate
Passage
5
Clinical procedure excerpt.
"Before inserting a urinary
catheter, gather all necessary supplies: catheter kit, sterile gloves,
lubricant, antiseptic solution, and a specimen bag if needed. Explain the
procedure to the patient and obtain verbal consent. Perform hand hygiene and
apply sterile gloves. Clean the meatus using antiseptic solution with a
single-use swab. Insert the catheter gently until urine flows."
17.
What should be done immediately before applying sterile gloves?
A. Insert the catheter
B. Clean the meatus
C. Perform hand hygiene
D. Obtain consent
18.
When should the catheter be inserted?
A. Before cleaning the meatus
B. After urine flows
C. After cleaning the meatus
D. Before obtaining consent
19.
The word "meatus" most likely refers to:
A. A type of lubricant
B. The opening of the urethra
C. A sterile field
D. The drainage bag
20.
Which supply is listed as optional depending on need?
A. Catheter kit
B. Sterile gloves
C. Specimen bag
D. Antiseptic solution
Passage
6
Nutrition counseling notes.
"Patients with chronic kidney
disease (CKD) may need to limit phosphorus intake. High-phosphorus foods
include dairy products, nuts, beans, and whole grains. Phosphorus additives are
often found in colas, processed meats, and packaged baked goods. Reading
ingredient labels for words containing 'phos' can help identify hidden
phosphorus."
21.
Which of the following is listed as a high-phosphorus food?
A. White rice
B. Nuts
C. Apples
D. Corn syrup
22.
The passage suggests patients should look for which letters on ingredient
labels?
A. Calc
B. Phos
C. Sodi
D. Potas
23.
Which of the following can be inferred about phosphorus additives?
A. They are always labeled clearly.
B. They are found only in dairy.
C. They are often in processed foods.
D. They are safe for all patients.
24.
The primary audience for this passage is:
A. Dietitians
B. CKD patients
C. Food manufacturers
D. Pediatricians
Passage
7
Text from a nursing handoff policy.
"The standardized handoff tool
SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) must be used during
all shift changes and patient transfers. Situation: patient name, room, and
chief complaint. Background: diagnosis, recent vitals, and medications given.
Assessment: current clinical status and any changes. Recommendation: what needs
to be done next."
25.
According to the policy, when must SBAR be used?
A. Only during emergencies
B. During shift changes and patient transfers
C. Only when a doctor is present
D. During weekly staff meetings
26.
Which SBAR component includes the patient's diagnosis?
A. Situation
B. Background
C. Assessment
D. Recommendation
27.
The "Recommendation" component would most likely include:
A. Patient's name and room number
B. Recent blood pressure reading
C. "Check blood glucose in 1 hour"
D. Past medical history
28.
The word "standardized" most nearly means:
A. Optional
B. Uniform and consistent
C. Complicated
D. Verbal only
Passage
8
Excerpt from a medication guide.
"Warfarin is an anticoagulant
(blood thinner). While taking warfarin, you should have regular blood tests to
check your INR. Foods high in vitamin K (such as spinach, kale, and broccoli)
can affect how warfarin works. Do not start or stop any other medications
without telling your doctor, including over-the-counter drugs and herbal
supplements."
29.
What is the purpose of regular blood tests for patients taking warfarin?
A. To check for anemia
B. To monitor INR
C. To measure vitamin K levels
D. To detect liver damage
30.
Which food group may interfere with warfarin?
A. High-protein foods
B. High–vitamin K foods
C. Low-carbohydrate foods
D. Dairy products
31.
What should a patient do before taking a new herbal supplement?
A. Stop warfarin temporarily
B. Inform the doctor
C. Double the warfarin dose
D. Take it with food
32.
The word "anticoagulant" suggests the medication:
A. Prevents clotting
B. Increases clotting
C. Lowers blood pressure
D. Raises heart rate
Passage
9
Observation notes from a nursing
student.
"When assessing a patient's
level of consciousness, use the AVPU scale: Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive.
An alert patient is fully awake and oriented. A patient responding only to
verbal stimuli opens eyes or moves when spoken to. Pain-responsive patients
react only to a painful stimulus such as a sternal rub. Unresponsive patients
show no reaction to any stimulus."
33.
A patient who opens eyes only when their name is called loudly would be
classified as:
A. Alert
B. Verbal
C. Pain
D. Unresponsive
34.
Which stimulus is used for a patient who does not respond to voice?
A. Bright light
B. Cold water
C. Painful stimulus
D. Loud noise
35.
The sternal rub is an example of:
A. Verbal stimulus
B. Painful stimulus
C. Visual stimulus
D. Auditory stimulus
36.
An unresponsive patient:
A. Follows commands slowly
B. Reacts to pain only
C. Shows no reaction to any stimulus
D. Opens eyes to voice
Passage
10
Hospital policy on patient
identification.
"Before administering any
medication, performing any procedure, or drawing any blood sample, the patient
must be identified using two unique identifiers. Acceptable identifiers include
full name, date of birth, medical record number, or a wristband barcode. Room
number or bed number is not an acceptable identifier. This policy applies to
all patients regardless of their alertness or ability to speak."
37.
Which of the following is an acceptable identifier according to the policy?
A. Room number
B. Bed number
C. Date of birth
D. Time of admission
38.
How many unique identifiers are required?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
39.
To whom does this policy apply?
A. Only alert patients
B. Only unconscious patients
C. All patients
D. Only surgical patients
40.
Which of the following can be inferred?
A. Room numbers change often.
B. Wristband barcodes are not reliable.
C. The policy helps prevent medication errors.
D. Nurses may use bed numbers if busy.
Passage
11
Text from a research summary.
"A recent systematic review
examined the effects of music therapy on postoperative pain. Analyzing 15
randomized controlled trials with 1,872 patients, researchers found that music
therapy reduced pain scores by an average of 1.5 points on a 0–10 scale.
Patients who listened to self-selected music had slightly better outcomes than
those who listened to pre-selected music."
41.
How many patients were included in the review?
A. 15
B. 100
C. 1,872
D. 2,500
42.
Which type of music therapy was most effective?
A. No music
B. Pre-selected music
C. Self-selected music
D. Classical only
43.
The average pain reduction was:
A. 0.5 points
B. 1.0 points
C. 1.5 points
D. 2.0 points
44.
The word "systematic review" most nearly means:
A. A single opinion
B. A summary of multiple studies
C. A patient survey
D. A drug advertisement
Passage
12
Instructions for collecting a
clean-catch urine specimen.
"1. Wash your hands. 2. Clean
the genital area using the provided wipe. 3. Begin urinating into the toilet.
4. After a few seconds, place the collection cup into the urine stream. 5. Fill
the cup halfway. 6. Finish urinating into the toilet. 7. Cap the cup and wash your
hands. Do not touch the inside of the cup or the lid."
45.
When should the collection cup be placed into the urine stream?
A. Immediately after starting to
urinate
B. After urinating for a few seconds
C. At the very end of urination
D. Before starting to urinate
46.
How full should the cup be?
A. Completely full
B. One quarter full
C. Halfway
D. Just a few drops
47.
What should the patient avoid touching?
A. The outside of the cup
B. The toilet handle
C. The inside of the cup or lid
D. The sink faucet
48.
The word "specimen" most nearly means:
A. Container
B. Sample
C. Medicine
D. Result
Passage
13
Signs of respiratory distress
(bulleted list)
• Nasal flaring
• Retractions (sucking in of skin between ribs)
• Grunting at the end of exhalation
• Cyanosis (bluish color of lips or nail beds)
• Tachypnea (rapid breathing)
49.
A bluish color of the lips is called:
A. Retractions
B. Cyanosis
C. Tachypnea
D. Grunting
50.
Which sign involves rapid breathing?
A. Nasal flaring
B. Retractions
C. Cyanosis
D. Tachypnea
ENGLISH & LANGUAGE USAGE (Questions 51–100)
51.
Which sentence is punctuated correctly?
A. The nurse asked "Have you
taken your medication today?"
B. The nurse asked, "Have you taken your medication today?"
C. The nurse asked "Have you taken your medication today"?
D. The nurse asked, "Have you taken your medication today"?
52.
Choose the correct word:
The patient's symptoms _____ over
the course of 24 hours.
A. worsened
B. worsened
C. worsend
D. worsinned
53.
Which sentence uses correct subject-verb agreement?
A. The pack of gloves are on the
shelf.
B. The pack of gloves is on the shelf.
C. The pack of gloves were on the shelf.
D. The pack of gloves have been on the shelf.
54.
Identify the adverb:
"The patient responded well to
the treatment."
A. patient
B. responded
C. well
D. treatment
55.
Which sentence is in active voice?
A. The medication was given by the
nurse.
B. The wound was cleaned by the technician.
C. The doctor prescribed a new antibiotic.
D. The chart was reviewed by the supervisor.
56.
Choose the correctly spelled word:
A. neccessary
B. necessary
C. necesary
D. neccesary
57.
Which sentence is correct?
A. The patient laid on the bed for
two hours.
B. The patient lay on the bed for two hours.
C. The patient lied on the bed for two hours.
D. The patient laid down the book.
58.
Which word is a synonym for "adhere" as in "adhere to the
wound"?
A. Detach
B. Stick
C. Clean
D. Cover
59.
Select the sentence that uses the semicolon correctly.
A. The patient was tired;
nevertheless he stayed awake.
B. The patient was tired; nevertheless, he stayed awake.
C. The patient was tired nevertheless; he stayed awake.
D. The patient; was tired, nevertheless he stayed awake.
60.
Which sentence contains a misplaced modifier?
A. The doctor explained the
procedure to the patient in a calm voice.
B. Walking into the room, the IV pole was visible.
C. After eating, the patient felt nauseous.
D. The nurse checked the bandage carefully.
61.
Choose the correct pronoun:
Neither of the patients _____
completed their forms.
A. has
B. have
C. is
D. are
62.
Which sentence is most formal?
A. Let me know if you need anything.
B. Please inform the charge nurse if you require assistance.
C. Hey, tell me if you need help.
D. Just holler if you need something.
63.
Identify the complete predicate:
"The nursing student carefully
measured the patient's blood pressure."
A. The nursing student
B. carefully measured
C. measured the patient's blood pressure
D. carefully measured the patient's blood pressure
64.
Which sentence avoids redundancy?
A. The patient's final outcome was
ultimately death.
B. The patient died at 3:00 AM.
C. The patient passed away in the early morning hours.
D. The patient expired and died.
65.
Which word means "before birth"?
A. Postnatal
B. Prenatal
C. Neonatal
D. Perinatal
66.
Choose the sentence with correct comma placement.
A. Before surgery the patient signed
consent forms.
B. Before surgery, the patient signed consent forms.
C. Before, surgery the patient signed consent forms.
D. Before surgery the patient, signed consent forms.
67.
Which sentence uses "affect" correctly?
A. The medication had no affect on
his symptoms.
B. The medication did not effect his symptoms.
C. The medication did not affect his symptoms.
D. The medication's affect was immediate.
68.
Identify the dependent clause:
"The patient called the nurse
because the pain increased."
A. The patient called the nurse
B. because the pain increased
C. the pain increased
D. called the nurse
69.
Which sentence is a run-on?
A. The patient arrived late the
clinic was closed.
B. The patient arrived late, so the clinic was closed.
C. Because the patient arrived late, the clinic was closed.
D. The patient arrived late; therefore, the clinic was closed.
70.
Choose the correct word:
The doctor _____ to the patient's
room twice today.
A. go
B. went
C. gone
D. goes
71.
Which sentence uses the apostrophe correctly?
A. The patients family was waiting
in the hall.
B. The patient's family was waiting in the hall.
C. The patients' family was waiting in the hall.
D. The patient's family' was waiting in the hall.
72.
Select the sentence with parallel structure:
A. The nurse is responsible for
taking vitals, to update the chart, and family communication.
B. The nurse is responsible for taking vitals, updating the chart, and
communicating with family.
C. The nurse is responsible for taking vitals, chart updates, and to
communicate with family.
D. The nurse is responsible for vitals taking, updating the chart, and family
communication.
73.
Which word is an antonym of "acute"?
A. Severe
B. Sudden
C. Chronic
D. Intense
74.
Identify the sentence that is a fragment.
A. The patient rested.
B. Because the patient was tired.
C. The patient was tired, so he rested.
D. After resting, the patient felt better.
75.
Choose the correctly spelled word:
A. seperate
B. separate
C. seperete
D. separite
76.
Which sentence uses "who" correctly?
A. The patient whom won the award
was discharged.
B. The patient who won the award was discharged.
C. Who did the nurse call?
D. To who did you give the report?
77.
Which word best completes the sentence?
The patient was _____ to light touch
in the affected area.
A. sensitive
B. sensative
C. sensetive
D. sensitve
78.
Identify the prepositional phrase:
"The specimen was placed in the
biohazard bag."
A. The specimen was placed
B. in the biohazard bag
C. was placed
D. the biohazard bag
79.
Which sentence uses formal language appropriate for a nursing note?
A. The patient seemed kinda out of
it.
B. Patient appears lethargic and disoriented.
C. The patient was like, really confused.
D. Patient is acting weird today.
80.
Choose the correct comparative form:
Of the two dressings, this one is
_____ effective.
A. most
B. more
C. best
D. much
81.
Which sentence contains a comma splice?
A. The patient was anxious, she
requested extra blankets.
B. The patient was anxious, so she requested extra blankets.
C. Because the patient was anxious, she requested extra blankets.
D. The patient was anxious; she requested extra blankets.
82.
Select the correct word:
The nurse will _____ the medication
into the IV line.
A. flush
B. flushh
C. flushe
D. flushed
83.
Which sentence uses correct capitalization?
A. The patient was referred to Dr.
Chen for cardiology.
B. The patient was referred to Dr. Chen for Cardiology.
C. The Patient was referred to dr. Chen for Cardiology.
D. The patient was referred to Dr. Chen for CARDIOLOGY.
84.
Identify the adjective:
"The elderly patient required assistance
walking."
A. patient
B. required
C. elderly
D. walking
85.
Which sentence is in the past perfect tense?
A. The patient took the medication.
B. The patient has taken the medication.
C. The patient had taken the medication before lunch.
D. The patient will take the medication.
86.
Choose the sentence that is clearest for a patient handout:
A. Administer PRN for episodes of
emesis.
B. Take this medication as needed for vomiting.
C. Use QID dosing for GI distress.
D. Titrate based on clinical response.
87.
Which word is the direct object?
"The phlebotomist drew
blood."
A. phlebotomist
B. drew
C. blood
D. The
88.
Select the correct word:
The policy will have a direct _____
on staffing levels.
A. affect
B. effect
C. impacting
D. effected
89.
Which sentence uses the colon correctly?
A. The lab requires: blood, urine,
and sputum.
B. The following supplies are needed: gloves, gauze, and tape.
C. The patient: was discharged with instructions.
D. Reasons for fever include: infection and inflammation.
90.
Identify the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement:
A. Each of the nurses are
responsible.
B. Each of the nurses is responsible.
C. Each of the nurses were responsible.
D. Each of the nurses have been responsible.
91.
Which word is a synonym for "contraindicated"?
A. Recommended
B. Not advised
C. Required
D. Optional
92.
Choose the sentence that best avoids jargon:
A. The patient is febrile with an
elevated WBC.
B. The patient has a fever and high white blood cell count.
C. The patient presents with pyrexia and leukocytosis.
D. The patient is febrile with leukocytosis.
93.
Which sentence demonstrates correct use of "its" vs.
"it's"?
A. The hospital updated it's hand
hygiene policy.
B. Its important to check patient identifiers.
C. The medication lost its potency over time.
D. The wound was red and it's edges were swollen.
94.
Identify the sentence with an inappropriate shift in tense:
A. The patient walks to the bathroom
and then rang for the nurse.
B. The patient walked to the bathroom and then rang for the nurse.
C. The patient walks to the bathroom and then rings for the nurse.
D. The patient walked to the bathroom and then called for help.
95.
Select the sentence that uses the hyphen correctly:
A. The patient is a 65 year old
male.
B. The patient is a 65-year-old male.
C. The patient is sixty five years old.
D. The patient is 65-years-old.
96.
Which word means "to make worse"?
A. Alleviate
B. Mitigate
C. Exacerbate
D. Ameliorate
97.
Choose the correct word:
The patient was instructed to _____
still during the procedure.
A. lay
B. lie
C. laid
D. lain
98.
Which sentence is most concise?
A. The reason why the patient was
admitted was because of shortness of breath.
B. Due to the fact that the patient had shortness of breath, admission
occurred.
C. The patient was admitted for shortness of breath.
D. Shortness of breath was the reason for which the patient was admitted.
99.
Identify the sentence that contains a dangling modifier:
A. After finishing the assessment,
the plan was updated.
B. After finishing the assessment, the nurse updated the plan.
C. While checking vitals, the patient asked a question.
D. While walking to the room, the nurse reviewed the chart.
100.
Which sentence is grammatically correct?
A. The patient hasn't took any
medication since yesterday.
B. The patient hasn't taken any medication since yesterday.
C. The patient haven't taken any medication since yesterday.
D. The patient hasn't taken any medication since yesterday evening time.
1.
C — Passage says patients may shower
48 hours after surgery.
2.
C — Swelling is listed as a sign of
infection.
3.
C — Fever over 101°F requires
contacting the surgeon immediately.
4.
B — “Submerge” means place under
water.
5.
B — Memo explains policy about
locking medication carts.
6.
C — Three unlocked carts were found.
7.
C — The memo says unlocked carts
pose a safety risk.
8.
C — “Violates” means breaks a rule
or policy.
9.
B — Monitoring improved hygiene
compliance and reduced infections.
10. B — Compliance increased from 58% to 87%.
11. B — HAIs = Healthcare-associated infections.
12. B — Better hand hygiene may reduce infections.
13. B — Hypertension is called silent because it has no
symptoms.
14. B — Systolic pressure occurs during heartbeats.
15. B — 118/76 is below 120/80.
16. C — Passage says hypertension can lead to stroke.
17. C — Hand hygiene comes before sterile gloves.
18. C — Catheter is inserted after cleaning the meatus.
19. B — Meatus means opening of the urethra.
20. C — Specimen bag is needed only if necessary.
21. B — Nuts are listed as high-phosphorus foods.
22. B — Patients should look for “phos.”
23. C — Additives are often found in processed foods.
24. B — Information is aimed at CKD patients.
25. B — SBAR is used during shift changes and transfers.
26. B — Diagnosis belongs in Background.
27. C — Recommendation includes next actions.
28. B — “Standardized” means uniform and consistent.
29. B — Blood tests monitor INR.
30. B — High-vitamin K foods affect warfarin.
31. B — Patients should tell the doctor first.
32. A — Anticoagulants prevent clotting.
33. B — Responding to voice = Verbal.
34. C — Painful stimulus is used if no voice response.
35. B — Sternal rub is a painful stimulus.
36. C — Unresponsive means no reaction to stimuli.
37. C — Date of birth is an approved identifier.
38. B — Two identifiers are required.
39. C — Policy applies to all patients.
40. C — Two identifiers help prevent errors.
41. C — Review included 1,872 patients.
42. C — Self-selected music worked best.
43. C — Pain reduced by 1.5 points.
44. B — Systematic review summarizes multiple studies.
45. B — Cup is placed after a few seconds of urination.
46. C — Cup should be halfway full.
47. C — Avoid touching inside of cup or lid.
48. B — “Specimen” means sample.
49. B — Bluish lips are called cyanosis.
50. D — Tachypnea means rapid breathing.
51. B — Correct punctuation and quotation marks.
52. A — “Worsened” is the correct spelling.
53. B — “Pack” is singular, so use “is.”
54. C — “Well” modifies the verb responded.
55. C — Subject performs the action in active voice.
56. B — “Necessary” is correctly spelled.
57. B — “Lay” is correct past tense of lie (recline).
58. B — “Adhere” means stick.
59. B — Semicolon and transition word are used correctly.
60. B — IV pole cannot walk into the room.
61. A — “Neither” is singular, so use “has.”
62. B — Most professional and formal wording.
63. D — Complete predicate includes verb and all modifiers.
64. B — Short and without repeated ideas.
65. B — Prenatal means before birth.
66. B — Introductory phrase requires a comma.
67. C — “Affect” is the correct verb form.
68. B — Begins with subordinating conjunction “because.”
69. A — Two independent clauses joined incorrectly.
70. B — “Went” is correct past tense.
71. B — Apostrophe shows singular possession.
72. B — All items use parallel verb forms.
73. C — Chronic is opposite of acute.
74. B — Incomplete thought; dependent clause only.
75. B — “Separate” is correctly spelled.
76. B — “Who” is correct subject pronoun.
77. A — “Sensitive” is correct spelling.
78. B — Phrase begins with preposition “in.”
79. B — Professional and objective language.
80. B — Comparative form for two items is “more.”
81. A — Two complete sentences joined by comma only.
82. A — “Flush” is correct base verb.
83. A — Common nouns like cardiology stay lowercase.
84. C — “Elderly” describes the patient.
85. C — Past perfect uses “had + past participle.”
86. B — Clear, simple language for patients.
87. C — “Blood” receives the action of drew.
88. B — “Effect” is the correct noun.
89. B — Colon correctly introduces a list.
90. B — “Each” is singular, so use “is.”
91. B — Contraindicated means not advised.
92. B — Avoids medical jargon and is easy to understand.
93. C — “Its” correctly shows possession.
94. A — Incorrect shift between present and past tense.
95. B — Compound adjective before noun uses hyphens.
96. C — Exacerbate means make worse.
97. B — “Lie” means recline or remain resting.
98. C — Most direct and concise sentence.
99. A — Modifier wrongly suggests “plan” finished assessment.
100.
B — Correct grammar and verb form
(“taken”).
