ATI
TEAS Version 7 Reading Practice Questions
Section
1: Key Ideas & Details
Passage:
"Nurses must maintain accurate and detailed patient records. Documentation
serves multiple purposes: it provides a legal record of care, facilitates
communication among healthcare team members, ensures continuity of care across
shifts, and supports quality improvement initiatives. The medical record is
considered a legal document and can be used in court proceedings. Therefore,
nurses must document objectively, avoiding opinions or judgments. Each entry
should include the date, time, and signature of the documenting nurse."
Question 1: Which of the following
statements best captures the main idea of the passage?
A. Court proceedings often rely on
medical records as primary evidence.
B. Patient documentation is essential for legal, communication, and quality
purposes.
C. Nurses should only document during their scheduled shifts.
D. Quality improvement initiatives are the most important reason for
documentation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The passage lists multiple purposes of documentation: legal record,
communication, continuity of care, and quality improvement. Option B captures
all these purposes, while the other options are either too narrow or not
mentioned.
Question 2: Which of the following
is an implicit assumption of the argument in the passage?
A. Nurses enjoy writing detailed
reports.
B. Incomplete documentation could harm patients or lead to legal issues.
C. Doctors do not need to read nurse's notes.
D. Paper records are superior to electronic records.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The author argues that documentation serves legal and continuity purposes. The
underlying (implicit) assumption is that failing to do this properly has
negative consequences, such as legal trouble or unsafe patient care, even
though the passage does not state this directly.
Section
2: Craft & Structure
Passage:
"The human circulatory system consists of the heart, blood vessels, and
approximately 5 liters of blood. The heart functions as a muscular pump with
four chambers: two atria and two ventricles. Deoxygenated blood enters the
right atrium through the superior and inferior vena cava, then moves to the
right ventricle and is pumped to the lungs via the pulmonary artery. Oxygenated
blood returns to the left atrium through pulmonary veins, passes to the left
ventricle, and is distributed throughout the body via the aorta."
Question 3: Based on the passage,
which of the following describes the correct sequence of blood flow through the
heart?
A. Left atrium → Left ventricle →
Lungs → Right atrium → Right ventricle
B. Right atrium → Right ventricle → Lungs → Left atrium → Left ventricle
C. Right ventricle → Right atrium → Lungs → Left ventricle → Left atrium
D. Left ventricle → Left atrium → Aorta → Right ventricle → Right atrium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The passage clearly states the order: right atrium → right ventricle → lungs →
left atrium → left ventricle.
Question 4: As used in the passage,
what does the word "facilitates" most nearly mean?
A. Prevents
B. Complicates
C. Aids or enables
D. Delays
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
In the context of "facilitates communication among healthcare team
members," the word means to make the process easier or enable it.
Section
3: Integration of Knowledge & Ideas
Passage (Memos):
To: Dog Wranglers
From: Sara Mosher
Re: Tuxedos and Tails Gala
This Saturday is the yearly event we
have all been waiting for, the rescue's biggest fundraising event of the year!
Please be sure to read the e-mails you received 2 weeks ago with all the
information about where to meet, what time, and what to wear. In addition,
please arrive twenty minutes prior to your assigned time to pick up your name
tags, box dinner, water bottle, and goody bag for your assigned dog.
Question 5: Which of the following
parts of a memo is missing from the Dog Wranglers memo?
A. The recipient of the memo
B. The date of the memo
C. The subject of the memo
D. The author of the memo
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Standard memos require a "Date:" line. While the memo includes
"To," "From," and "Re" (Subject), it does not
include the date.
Question 6: Based on the content of
the memorandum, when did Sara Mosher likely send this memo?
A. Before selecting dog wranglers
for the event.
B. The week before the gala.
C. The day of the gala.
D. One month after the gala.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The memo states the gala is "This Saturday," implying it is Monday
through Friday of the same week, specifically the week before the event.
Section
4: Procedural & Sequential Order
Passage (Seed Germination):
"Are you looking for a
seed-germination accelerator? To jump-start seed germination, dissolve 3 to 4
aspirin tablets in 15 L water. Use a small portion of this mixture to soak the
seeds overnight. Avoid oversaturating the seeds. The next day, mix the
presoaked seeds with wet compost-rich soil in a 2- to 3-inch high tray. Once
seedlings appear (in 1 to 2 days), move them to a sheltered nursery."
Question 7: Which of the following
is the first step enumerated in the process of accelerating seed germination?
A. Move the seedlings to a sheltered
nursery.
B. Mix the presoaked seeds with wet compost-rich soil.
C. Prepare aspirin water by dissolving 3 to 4 aspirin tablets in 15 L water.
D. Soak seeds in aspirin water overnight.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The passage instructs the reader to dissolve the aspirin in water first. You
cannot soak the seeds until the water is prepared. The order is: Prepare water
→ Soak seeds → Mix soil → Move seedlings.
ATI TEAS Version 7 Reading Practice
10 Long Passages with Questions, Answer Options, and Complete Answer
Key
Passage 1 (Informational / Anatomy & Physiology)
Title: The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)
The
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is a hormone system that regulates
blood pressure and fluid balance. When blood pressure drops, the kidneys
release renin, an enzyme that converts angiotensinogen (produced by the liver)
into angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is then converted by angiotensin-converting
enzyme (ACE), primarily in the lungs, into angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a
potent vasoconstrictor, narrowing blood vessels to increase blood pressure. It
also stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone, which signals the
kidneys to retain sodium and water while excreting potassium. This increases
blood volume and further raises blood pressure. Drugs known as ACE inhibitors
are commonly prescribed for hypertension because they block the conversion of
angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and reduced blood
volume. However, a common side effect is a dry, persistent cough due to
increased bradykinin levels.
Questions 1–5
1. What is the primary function of the RAAS as
described in the passage?
A. To decrease blood volume
B. To regulate blood pressure and fluid balance
C. To produce red blood cells
D. To increase potassium retention
2. According to the passage, angiotensin II directly
causes which two effects?
A. Vasodilation and sodium excretion
B. Vasoconstriction and aldosterone release
C. Potassium retention and cough
D. Renin release and vasodilation
3. Which of the following statements is true about ACE
inhibitors?
A. They increase angiotensin II levels.
B. They are used to treat low blood pressure.
C. They block conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
D. They have no reported side effects.
4. The word “potent” in the passage most nearly means:
A. Weak
B. Slow
C. Powerful
D. Uncommon
5. Where does the conversion of angiotensin I to
angiotensin II primarily occur?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Lungs
Passage 2 (Procedural / Patient
Education)
Title: How to Collect a Clean-Catch Midstream Urine
Specimen
A clean-catch
midstream urine specimen is required to diagnose urinary tract infections
without contamination from skin bacteria. Follow these steps carefully. First,
wash your hands with soap and water. Second, open the sterile collection kit
and remove the antiseptic towelette. Third, clean the urethral opening: for
females, spread the labia and wipe from front to back; for males, retract the
foreskin and clean the glans. Use one towelette per swipe. Fourth, begin to urinate
into the toilet. After the initial stream has passed, place the sterile
collection cup into the urine stream without touching the inner cup or rim.
Collect approximately 30–60 mL. Fifth, finish urinating into the toilet. Sixth,
cap the cup tightly without touching the inside of the lid. Finally, wash your
hands again and deliver the specimen to the lab within one hour or refrigerate
it.
Questions 1–6
1. What is the purpose of discarding the initial
stream of urine?
A. To fill the bladder completely
B. To flush out contaminants from the urethra
C. To ensure the cup is sterile
D. To collect more urine
2. Which of the following is a required step before
beginning to urinate?
A. Refrigerate the cup
B. Clean the urethral opening with an antiseptic towelette
C. Drink two glasses of water
D. Label the cup with the date
3. What should the patient do immediately after
capping the cup?
A. Place it in the refrigerator
B. Deliver it to the lab
C. Wash hands again
D. Clean the urethra again
4. Which of the following would invalidate the
specimen?
A. Collecting 50 mL of urine
B. Washing hands before starting
C. Touching the inside of the cup lid
D. Delivering the specimen within 45 minutes
5. The word “midstream” means:
A. The first few drops
B. Urine collected at the end
C. Urine collected after the initial stream
D. Catheterized urine
6. For an uncircumcised male patient, what additional
step is required?
A. Wash hands twice
B. Retract the foreskin before cleaning
C. Use three towelettes
D. Collect more urine
Passage 3 (Expository / Microbiology)
Title: Gram-Positive vs. Gram-Negative Bacteria
Bacteria are
classified as Gram-positive or Gram-negative based on their cell wall
structure. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer that retains
crystal violet stain, appearing purple. They lack an outer membrane, making
them more susceptible to antibiotics like penicillin. Examples include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Gram-negative
bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane containing
lipopolysaccharide (LPS). They lose the crystal violet stain during alcohol
wash and appear pink after counterstaining. The LPS acts as an endotoxin that
can trigger septic shock. Gram-negative bacteria are often more resistant to
antibiotics due to porin channels and efflux pumps.
Questions 1–5
1. Which color do Gram-negative bacteria appear?
A. Purple
B. Blue
C. Pink
D. Green
2. Why are Gram-positive bacteria more susceptible to
penicillin?
A. They have an outer membrane
B. They lack an outer membrane
C. They produce endotoxins
D. They have no cell wall
3. Which component is associated with septic shock?
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Crystal violet
D. Safranin
4. Which is an example of Gram-positive bacteria?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
5. Gram-negative resistance is due to:
A. Thick peptidoglycan
B. Porin channels and efflux pumps
C. Lack of stain uptake
D. No membrane
Passage 4 (Narrative / Clinical
Judgment)
Title: The Overlooked Allergy
Linda, a
45-year-old woman, presented to the emergency department with shortness of
breath and hives after eating shrimp. Her blood pressure was low, and she was
tachycardic. She received epinephrine and improved quickly.
Before
discharge, the physician prescribed cephalexin for an unrelated infection.
Nurse Maria reviewed Linda’s chart and noticed a documented allergy to
penicillin. Knowing that cephalosporins can cross-react, Maria alerted the
physician, who changed the prescription.
Questions 1–5
1. What caused Linda’s initial reaction?
A. Cephalexin
B. Penicillin
C. Shrimp
D. Doxycycline
2. What can be inferred about Maria?
A. She ignored medication history
B. She is attentive and knowledgeable
C. She dislikes physicians
D. She prescribed antibiotics herself
3. Why was cephalexin prescribed?
A. To treat the allergic reaction
B. For an unrelated infection
C. To lower blood pressure
D. To prevent hives
4. Cross-reactivity is approximately:
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 50%
D. 90%
5. “Documented allergy” means:
A. Patient dislikes medication
B. Prior adverse reaction is recorded
C. Family history exists
D. Medication was refused once
Passage 5 (Memo / Policy Change)
Title: New Pain Assessment Protocol
A memo
announced that effective July 1, 2026, the facility will use the PAINAD scale
for non-verbal patients. The numeric pain scale is considered invalid in this
population.
The PAINAD
measures five domains: breathing, negative vocalization, facial expression,
body language, and consolability. Scores range from 0–10. Nurses must complete
training by June 28.
Questions 1–6
1. Why is PAINAD replacing the numeric scale?
A. It is cheaper
B. Numeric scale is invalid for non-verbal patients
C. It is state law
D. It is easier
2. Which patient is NOT specifically mentioned?
A. Dementia
B. Aphasia
C. Speaking postoperative patient
D. Developmental disabilities
3. A PAINAD score of 5 requires:
A. No action
B. Reassessment later
C. PRN medication
D. Emergency code
4. Training deadline?
A. July 1
B. June 15
C. June 28
D. July 3
5. Number of behavioral domains?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 10
6. “Consolability” means:
A. Communication ability
B. Ability to be soothed
C. Mobility
D. Appetite
Passage 6 (Literary / Descriptive)
Title: The Last Hour of the Night Shift
The clock read
6:47 AM. Nurse Davis completed his final rounds. He reflected on successfully
starting an IV on Mrs. Patel after difficulty and administering pain relief to
Mr. Okonkwo.
The shift had
been tiring but manageable. Dawn was arriving as he handed the unit to the day
crew.
Questions 1–5
1. What time does shift end?
A. 6:00
B. 6:47
C. 7:00
D. 7:13
2. Which patient had heart failure?
A. Mr. Okonkwo
B. Mrs. Patel
C. Room 216
D. None
3. Tone of passage?
A. Angry
B. Reflective
C. Humorous
D. Panicked
4. Main challenge?
A. Death of patient
B. Difficult blood draw
C. Medication error
D. Argument
5. “Leaving the unit to the day crew” means:
A. Fired
B. Shift completed
C. Unit closed
D. Emergency started
Passage 7 (Chart / Medication
Administration Record)
A patient with
pneumonia received several medications over 24 hours, including levofloxacin,
acetaminophen, furosemide, potassium chloride, and albuterol. Potassium level
was 3.2 mEq/L.
Questions 1–6
1. Acetaminophen doses?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
2. Potassium level indicates:
A. Normal
B. High
C. Low
D. Critical
3. PRN medication for wheezing?
A. Levofloxacin
B. Furosemide
C. Potassium chloride
D. Albuterol
4. Furosemide suggests:
A. Fluid overload
B. Dehydration
C. Infection
D. Fasting
5. Medication causing nausea?
A. Levofloxacin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Potassium chloride
D. Albuterol
6. Furosemide frequency?
A. Daily
B. Every 12 hours
C. Every 6 hours
D. Every 4 hours
Passage 8 (Historical / Medical
Ethics)
Title: The Tuskegee Syphilis Study
The Tuskegee
Syphilis Study followed 600 Black men from 1932 to 1972. Even after penicillin
became available, treatment was withheld to observe disease progression.
The exposure
of the study led to the National Research Act of 1974 and stricter informed
consent protections.
Questions 1–5
1. Primary unethical act?
A. False publication
B. Withholding treatment
C. Overpayment
D. Misdiagnosis
2. Study exposed by:
A. CDC
B. Nurse
C. Jean Heller
D. Congress
3. Resulting legislation?
A. Civil Rights Act
B. National Research Act
C. HIPAA
D. ACA
4. By 1947, penicillin was:
A. Experimental
B. Effective standard cure
C. Illegal
D. Military-only
5. Congenital syphilis means:
A. Bloodborne transmission
B. Present at birth
C. Adult-only disease
D. Temporary infection
Passage 9 (Persuasive / Healthcare
Policy)
Title: The Case for Bedside Shift Reporting
Bedside shift
reporting improves patient satisfaction, reduces falls, and decreases
medication errors. Critics cite privacy concerns, but these can be addressed by
discussing sensitive matters quietly.
The author
argues bedside reporting should become standard practice.
Questions 1–6
1. Main claim?
A. Traditional handoffs are superior
B. Bedside reporting should be standard
C. Patients dislike involvement
D. Privacy makes it impossible
2. BSR is NOT linked to:
A. Better satisfaction
B. Accountability
C. Longer stays
D. Fewer errors
3. Counterargument concerns:
A. Cost
B. Fatigue
C. Privacy
D. Evidence
4. HCAHPS refers to:
A. Equipment
B. Infection
C. Satisfaction survey
D. Certification
5. Privacy solution?
A. End BSR
B. Discuss quietly
C. Only private rooms
D. Record reports
6. Systematic review year?
A. 2017
B. 2018
C. 2019
D. 2020
Passage 10 (Comparative / Disease
Processes)
Title: Type 1 vs. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1
diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of beta cells, causing absolute
insulin deficiency. Patients require lifelong insulin.
Type 2
diabetes involves insulin resistance and relative deficiency. It is linked to
obesity and inactivity. Both types increase risk for complications such as
retinopathy and nephropathy.
Questions 1–6
1. Primary difference?
A. Type 1 resistance
B. Type 1 absolute deficiency, Type 2 resistance
C. Type 1 adults only
D. Type 2 insulin only
2. Characteristic of Type 1?
A. HHS
B. DKA
C. Obesity
D. Hypertension
3. Type 2 risk factor?
A. Autoimmune destruction
B. Viral infection
C. Obesity
D. Childhood only
4. Extreme hyperglycemia without ketosis indicates:
A. DKA
B. HHS
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Stroke
5. Common complication of both?
A. Retinopathy
B. DKA
C. Obesity
D. No insulin
6. Type 2 accounts for:
A. 5–10%
B. 20–30%
C. 50–60%
D. 90–95%
ATI TEAS Version 7 Reading – Answer Key with
Short Reasons
Passage 1 (RAAS)
1.
B
– It regulates blood pressure and fluid balance (main idea).
2.
B
– Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction + aldosterone release.
3.
C
– ACE inhibitors block angiotensin I → II conversion.
4.
C
– “Potent” means powerful.
5.
D
– Conversion occurs mainly in the lungs.
Passage 2 (Urine Collection)
1.
B
– First stream flushes urethral contaminants.
2.
B
– Cleaning urethral opening is required before urination.
3.
C
– Hands must be washed again after capping.
4.
C
– Touching lid contaminates sterile sample.
5.
C
– Midstream = after initial flow passes.
6.
B
– Foreskin must be retracted before cleaning.
Passage 3 (Gram Bacteria)
1.
C
– Gram-negative stain pink.
2.
B
– No outer membrane → more antibiotic sensitive.
3.
B
– LPS causes endotoxin shock.
4.
C
– Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive.
5.
B
– Efflux pumps + porins increase resistance.
Passage 4 (Allergy Case)
1.
C
– Shrimp triggered allergic reaction.
2.
B
– Nurse recognized risk and acted correctly.
3.
B
– Drug was for unrelated infection.
4.
B
– Cross-reactivity ~10%.
5.
B
– Means recorded previous allergy reaction.
Passage 5 (Pain Scale Memo)
1.
B
– Numeric scale not valid in non-verbal patients.
2.
C
– Speaking post-op patients not included.
3.
C
– Score ≥4 triggers PRN meds.
4.
C
– Training due June 28.
5.
C
– 5 behavioral domains.
6.
B
– Consolability = ability to be soothed.
Passage 6 (Night Shift)
1.
C
– Shift ends after 6:47 → 7:00 AM.
2.
B
– Mrs. Patel had heart failure.
3.
B
– Calm reflective tone.
4.
B
– Difficult IV/blood draw issue.
5.
C
– Handover of care to next shift.
Passage 7 (MAR Chart)
1.
B
– Two doses given.
2.
C
– 3.2 = low potassium.
3.
D
– Albuterol treats wheezing.
4.
A
– Furosemide removes excess fluid.
5.
C
– Potassium caused nausea.
6.
B
– Every 12 hours = Q12h.
Passage 8 (Tuskegee Study)
1.
B
– Treatment was intentionally withheld.
2.
C
– Jean Heller exposed it.
3.
B
– Led to National Research Act.
4.
B
– Penicillin was standard cure.
5.
B
– Congenital = present at birth.
Passage 9 (Bedside Reporting)
1.
B
– Author supports BSR adoption.
2.
C
– Longer hospital stays not linked.
3.
C
– Privacy concern is main objection.
4.
C
– HCAHPS = patient satisfaction survey.
5.
B
– Sensitive info discussed quietly.
6.
C
– Study cited from 2019.
Passage 10 (Diabetes)
1.
B
– Type 1 = no insulin; Type 2 = resistance.
2.
B
– DKA is Type 1 complication.
3.
C
– Obesity is Type 2 risk factor.
4.
B
– HHS = severe Type 2 condition.
5.
A
– Retinopathy affects both types.
6.
D
– Type 2 is 90–95% cases.
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