ATI TEAS Version 7 Reading – Key Ideas & Details (1–25

 

ATI TEAS Version 7 Reading – Key Ideas & Details (1–25)

Practice Questions (Without Answers)

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Passage 1 (Questions 1–3)

The Great Barrier Reef, located off the coast of Queensland, Australia, is the world's largest coral reef system. Spanning over 2,300 kilometers, it contains more than 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands. The reef is home to thousands of marine species, including fish, turtles, dolphins, and sharks. However, climate change, ocean acidification, and pollution threaten its survival. Scientists estimate that if current warming trends continue, over 90% of the reef's corals could die by 2050.

1. What is the main idea of this passage?
A) The Great Barrier Reef is located off the coast of Australia
B) The Great Barrier Reef is the largest coral reef system facing serious threats
C) The Great Barrier Reef contains over 2,900 individual reefs
D) Climate change affects marine life worldwide

2. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A) The Great Barrier Reef will completely disappear by 2050
B) Human activities contribute to threats facing the reef
C) The reef contains more fish than any other marine habitat
D) Ocean acidification only affects coral reefs

3. The word "spanning" in the passage most nearly means:
A) Connecting
B) Extending across
C) Jumping over
D) Measuring briefly

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Passage 2 (Questions 4–6)

On September 22, 1862, President Abraham Lincoln issued the preliminary Emancipation Proclamation. This executive order declared that on January 1, 1863, all slaves in Confederate states still in rebellion would be "then, thenceforward, and forever free." However, the Proclamation did not apply to slave-holding border states that remained loyal to the Union, such as Delaware, Kentucky, Maryland, and Missouri. Approximately 50,000 slaves were immediately freed on January 1, 1863, while nearly 3 million remained enslaved in areas not under Union control.

4. What is the topic of this passage?
A) The American Civil War
B) The Emancipation Proclamation and its limitations
C) Abraham Lincoln's presidency
D) Slavery in the border states

5. Which of the following is a factual statement from the passage?
A) The Emancipation Proclamation freed all slaves in America
B) Approximately 50,000 slaves were freed on January 1, 1863
C) Lincoln issued the proclamation on January 1, 1863
D) The border states joined the Confederacy after the proclamation

6. Based on the passage, why did the Emancipation Proclamation NOT free slaves in Delaware?
A) Delaware had already freed all slaves before 1862
B) Delaware was a border state that remained loyal to the Union
C) The proclamation only applied to Confederate states, and Delaware was not one
D) Both B and C

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Passage 3 (Questions 7–9)

The process of photosynthesis occurs in plants, algae, and some bacteria. During photosynthesis, organisms convert light energy, usually from the sun, into chemical energy stored in glucose. This process requires carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight. Oxygen is released as a byproduct. Photosynthesis occurs primarily in the leaves of plants within organelles called chloroplasts. The overall chemical equation for photosynthesis is: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂.

7. What is the primary purpose of this passage?
A) To argue that photosynthesis is the most important biological process
B) To explain the process of photosynthesis and its requirements
C) To compare photosynthesis in plants versus bacteria
D) To describe the structure of chloroplasts

8. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph?
A) The history of photosynthesis research
B) Cellular respiration, the opposite of photosynthesis
C) Different types of chlorophyll pigments
D) How animals obtain energy from food

9. The word "byproduct" in the passage most nearly means:
A) Main product
B) Secondary product
C) Unnecessary waste
D) Chemical reactant

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Passage 4 (Questions 10–12)

Chronic sleep deprivation affects approximately one-third of American adults. Research has linked insufficient sleep to numerous health problems, including obesity, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and depression. The National Sleep Foundation recommends that adults aged 18–64 get 7–9 hours of sleep per night. However, work demands, screen time, and stress often interfere with achieving this goal. One study found that individuals who slept fewer than 6 hours per night had a 13% higher mortality risk than those sleeping 7–8 hours.

10. The author's primary purpose is to:
A) Persuade readers to sleep more
B) Inform readers about the effects and prevalence of sleep deprivation
C) Criticize employers for overworking their staff
D) Describe the history of sleep research

11. The statement "sleep deprivation affects approximately one-third of American adults" is an example of:
A) Opinion
B) Hypothesis
C) Statistical evidence
D) Anecdotal evidence

12. Which of the following can be inferred about people who sleep 7–8 hours per night?
A) They never develop obesity or diabetes
B) They have a lower mortality risk than those sleeping fewer than 6 hours
C) They do not use electronic devices before bed
D) They are all between the ages of 18 and 64

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Passage 5 (Questions 13–15)

In 1928, Scottish biologist Alexander Fleming returned to his laboratory after a vacation to find that a mold called Penicillium notatum had contaminated one of his bacterial culture plates. Around the mold, there was a clear area where bacteria had not grown. Fleming concluded that the mold produced a substance that killed bacteria. He named this substance "penicillin." Although Fleming published his findings, he was unable to purify penicillin. It was not until a decade later that Howard Florey and Ernst Chain successfully purified penicillin and demonstrated its effectiveness as an antibiotic. They were awarded the Nobel Prize in 1945, along with Fleming.

13. What is the sequence of events described in the passage?
A) Fleming purified penicillin, then Florey and Chain discovered the mold
B) Fleming discovered the mold's antibacterial effect, then Florey and Chain purified penicillin
C) Florey and Chain discovered penicillin, then Fleming confirmed their work
D) The Nobel Prize was awarded before penicillin was discovered

14. Why was Fleming unable to purify penicillin?
A) He lost interest in the research
B) The passage does not specify why
C) He did not have a bacterial culture plate
D) The mold died before he could extract the substance

15. The author's tone in this passage can best be described as:
A) Critical and skeptical
B) Enthusiastic and humorous
C) Neutral and factual
D) Pessimistic and warning

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Passage 6 (Questions 16–18)

To make a classic omelet, first crack two or three eggs into a bowl and whisk them vigorously with a fork until the yolks and whites are fully combined and slightly frothy. Add a pinch of salt and pepper. Heat a non-stick skillet over medium heat and add one tablespoon of butter. When the butter has melted and begins to bubble but not brown, pour in the eggs. Use a spatula to gently push cooked portions toward the center, tilting the pan to allow uncooked egg to flow to the edges. When the eggs are set but still moist on top, sprinkle with cheese or other fillings. Fold one-third of the omelet toward the center, then fold the opposite side over. Slide onto a plate and serve immediately.

16. The author's primary purpose is to:
A) Compare different omelet recipes
B) Persuade readers to eat more eggs
C) Provide step-by-step instructions for making an omelet
D) Describe the history of the omelet

17. When should fillings be added to the omelet?
A) Before pouring eggs into the pan
B) Immediately after adding butter to the pan
C) When the eggs are set but still moist on top
D) After folding the omelet completely

18. The word "vigorously" in the passage most nearly means:
A) Gently and slowly
B) With great energy and force
C) Hesitantly and carefully
D) Briefly and lazily

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Passage 7 (Questions 19–21)

The term "Renaissance" means "rebirth" in French and refers to a period of European history from roughly 1300 to 1600. This era marked the transition from the Middle Ages to modernity. The Renaissance began in Florence, Italy, and spread throughout Europe. Key characteristics included a renewed interest in classical Greek and Roman art, literature, and philosophy; the development of linear perspective in painting; and advancements in science and technology, including the printing press. Notable figures include Leonardo da Vinci, Michelangelo, William Shakespeare, and Galileo Galilei.

19. What is the organizational pattern of this passage?
A) Compare and contrast
B) Chronological order
C) Problem and solution
D) Cause and effect

20. Which of the following can be inferred about the Middle Ages based on this passage?
A) They were more advanced than the Renaissance
B) They had less interest in classical Greek and Roman culture than the Renaissance
C) They occurred after 1600
D) They began in Florence, Italy

21. The word "notable" in the passage most nearly means:
A) Famous
B) Noisy
C) Average
D) Invisible

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Passage 8 (Questions 22–25)

Globalization refers to the increasing interconnectedness of economies, cultures, and populations across the world. This process is driven by international trade, investment, technology, and migration. Proponents argue that globalization has lifted millions out of poverty, reduced prices for consumers, and spread democratic values. Critics contend that globalization has widened income inequality, exploited workers in developing countries, and homogenized cultures. The COVID-19 pandemic exposed vulnerabilities in global supply chains, leading some nations to reconsider their dependence on foreign manufacturing. The future of globalization remains uncertain, with trends toward both integration and protectionism.

22. The author's attitude toward globalization is best described as:
A) Strongly supportive
B) Strongly critical
C) Balanced, presenting multiple perspectives
D) Disinterested and neutral

23. What does the word "homogenized" most nearly mean in this context?
A) Celebrated and preserved
B) Made uniform or similar
C) Destroyed completely
D) Exported to other nations

24. Based on the passage, how did the COVID-19 pandemic affect views on globalization?
A) It proved that globalization is always beneficial
B) It made all nations increase their dependence on foreign manufacturing
C) It exposed vulnerabilities, causing some nations to reconsider dependence on foreign manufacturing
D) It had no effect on views about globalization

25. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A) The Complete History of Globalization
B) Globalization: Benefits, Criticisms, and Uncertain Future
C) Why Globalization Should Be Abolished
D) The Economic Impact of the COVID-19 Pandemic

ATI TEAS Reading – Section 2: Craft & Structure (Questions 26–70)

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Passage 9 (Questions 26–28)

"To be, or not to be, that is the question:
Whether 'tis nobler in the mind to suffer
The slings and arrows of outrageous fortune,
Or to take arms against a sea of troubles
And by opposing end them."

26. The phrase "slings and arrows of outrageous fortune" is an example of:
A) Simile
B) Metaphor
C) Hyperbole
D) Personification

27. The tone of this passage is best described as:
A) Joyful and celebratory
B) Angry and vengeful
C) Contemplative and uncertain
D) Confident and determined

28. The speaker is contemplating:
A) Whether to fight in a battle
B) Whether to continue living or to die
C) Whether to get married
D) Whether to become king

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Passage 10 (Questions 29–31)

Dear Editor,

The recent proposal to build a shopping mall on the corner of Elm Street and Main Avenue is a grave mistake. Our city already has three underutilized shopping centers within a five-mile radius. The proposed location is adjacent to Greenwood Park, one of the few green spaces where families can recreate. Construction would destroy over 200 mature trees and displace wildlife. Furthermore, increased traffic would endanger children walking to nearby Jefferson Elementary School. I urge the city council to reject this proposal and instead consider revitalizing existing commercial properties.

Sincerely,
Margaret Chen, Concerned Resident

29. The author's primary purpose is to:
A) Inform readers about the benefits of shopping malls
B) Persuade the city council to reject the mall proposal
C) Describe the history of Greenwood Park
D) Entertain readers with a story about local politics

30. The phrase "grave mistake" is an example of:
A) Understatement
B) Emotional appeal
C) Logical fallacy
D) Neutral observation

31. What does Margaret Chen suggest as an alternative to building the new mall?
A) Building a larger park
B) Doing nothing at all
C) Revitalizing existing commercial properties
D) Relocating the elementary school

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Passage 11 (Questions 32–34)

Obesity rates among American children have tripled since the 1970s. Today, approximately one in five school-aged children is obese. The causes are multifactorial: increased consumption of sugar-sweetened beverages, decreased physical activity due to screen time, and limited access to healthy foods in low-income neighborhoods. However, blaming parents or children oversimplifies a complex public health crisis. Food deserts, agricultural subsidies that favor corn and soy over fruits and vegetables, and aggressive marketing of junk food to children all play significant roles. Addressing childhood obesity requires systemic changes, not individual willpower alone.

32. The author's attitude toward blaming parents for childhood obesity is:
A) Supportive
B) Critical or dismissive
C) Enthusiastic
D) Unclear

33. The word "multifactorial" most nearly means:
A) Having a single cause
B) Caused by many different factors
C) Unimportant or trivial
D) Easily solved

34. The author's main argument is that:
A) Parents are entirely responsible for their children's weight
B) Childhood obesity is primarily caused by genetics
C) Systemic changes are needed to address childhood obesity
D) Screen time has no effect on obesity rates

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Passage 12 (Questions 35–37)

When using a fire extinguisher, remember the acronym PASS:

Pull the pin. This breaks the tamper seal.
Aim low. Point the nozzle at the base of the fire.
Squeeze the handle slowly and evenly.
Sweep the nozzle from side to side.

Never use water on a grease fire or electrical fire. For grease fires, use a Class K or Class B extinguisher. For electrical fires, use a Class C extinguisher. If a fire is larger than a small trash can, evacuate immediately and call emergency services.

35. The organizational pattern of the PASS instructions is:
A) Chronological order
B) Compare and contrast
C) Cause and effect
D) Problem and solution

36. According to the passage, what should you do if a fire is larger than a small trash can?
A) Use more extinguishers
B) Try to smother the fire with a blanket
C) Evacuate immediately and call emergency services
D) Use water to cool the fire

37. The acronym PASS helps readers remember:
A) When to call emergency services
B) The steps for using a fire extinguisher
C) Different classes of fires
D) Safety equipment to buy

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Passage 13 (Questions 38–40)

While both classical and operant conditioning are forms of associative learning, they differ in important ways. Classical conditioning, first described by Ivan Pavlov, involves pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus to produce a conditioned response. For example, Pavlov's dogs learned to salivate at the sound of a bell because it was paired with food. Operant conditioning, associated with B.F. Skinner, involves learning through consequences. Behaviors followed by reinforcement are strengthened, while behaviors followed by punishment are weakened. In classical conditioning, the learner is passive; in operant conditioning, the learner actively operates on the environment.

38. The organizational pattern of this passage is:
A) Compare and contrast
B) Chronological order
C) Sequence of events
D) Spatial order

39. Which of the following is an example of operant conditioning?
A) A dog salivating at a bell
B) A student studying harder after receiving a good grade
C) A baby crying when hungry
D) A person blinking when air is blown into the eye

40. The word "passive" in the passage most nearly means:
A) Active and engaged
B) Receiving action without responding actively
C) Angry and aggressive
D) Intelligent and quick

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Passage 14 (Questions 41–44)

Social media has transformed how people consume news. A 2021 Pew Research Center study found that 48% of U.S. adults get news from social media "often" or "sometimes." Facebook remains the dominant platform for news consumption, followed by YouTube and Twitter. However, concerns about misinformation have grown. False stories spread six times faster than true stories on Twitter. Younger adults are more likely to get news from Instagram and TikTok, platforms where video content predominates. Experts recommend verifying news by checking multiple sources and using fact-checking websites.

41. The source cited in this passage (Pew Research Center) is an example of:
A) Anecdotal evidence
B) Peer-reviewed research
C) Survey research from a reputable organization
D) Personal opinion

42. The statement "False stories spread six times faster than true stories on Twitter" is:
A) An opinion
B) A factual claim supported by research
C) A logical fallacy
D) A rhetorical question

43. Which group is most likely to get news from Instagram and TikTok according to the passage?
A) Older adults
B) Younger adults
C) Facebook users only
D) Professional journalists

44. What does the author recommend for verifying news?
A) Only using social media for news
B) Checking multiple sources and using fact-checking websites
C) Avoiding all news on social media
D) Trusting only one news platform

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Passage 15 (Questions 45–47)

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is often called the "silent killer" because it typically has no symptoms until significant damage has occurred. A normal blood pressure reading is below 120/80 mm Hg. Stage 1 hypertension is diagnosed when readings consistently range from 130–139 systolic or 80–89 diastolic. Lifestyle modifications including reducing sodium intake, exercising regularly, limiting alcohol, and maintaining a healthy weight can lower blood pressure. Many patients also require medication. Untreated hypertension increases risk of heart attack, stroke, and kidney disease.

45. Why is hypertension called the "silent killer"?
A) It causes sudden death without warning
B) It has no symptoms until significant damage has occurred
C) It only affects people who do not speak
D) It makes patients unable to talk

46. The intended audience for this passage is most likely:
A) Medical students
B) Patients or the general public
C) Hospital administrators
D) Pharmaceutical researchers

47. Which of the following is a lifestyle modification mentioned in the passage?
A) Taking more medication
B) Increasing sodium intake
C) Reducing sodium intake and exercising regularly
D) Ignoring blood pressure readings

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Passage 16 (Questions 48–50)

Climate change skeptics often argue that Earth's climate has always changed naturally, and therefore human activity cannot be the cause of current warming. While it is true that natural factors such as volcanic eruptions, solar radiation changes, and orbital variations have caused climate shifts throughout Earth's history, the current rate of warming is unprecedented. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) concluded that it is "unequivocal that human influence has warmed the atmosphere, ocean, and land." Greenhouse gas emissions from burning fossil fuels are the dominant cause.

48. The author addresses the argument of climate change skeptics in order to:
A) Agree with them completely
B) Refute or counter their claim with evidence
C) Ignore their perspective
D) Prove that natural climate change does not exist

49. The word "unequivocal" most nearly means:
A) Uncertain and questionable
B) Clear and without doubt
C) Minor and insignificant
D) Recent and temporary

50. According to the passage, what is the dominant cause of current global warming?
A) Volcanic eruptions
B) Solar radiation changes
C) Orbital variations
D) Greenhouse gas emissions from burning fossil fuels

Section 3: Integration of Knowledge & Ideas (Questions 51–75)

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Questions 51–55 refer to the following graph description

A bar graph shows the average daily screen time (in hours) for three age groups in 2010 and 2020. For ages 8–12: 4.5 hours in 2010, 6.0 hours in 2020. For ages 13–18: 6.0 hours in 2010, 8.5 hours in 2020. For ages 19–25: 5.0 hours in 2010, 7.5 hours in 2020.

51. Which age group had the highest screen time in 2020?
A) Ages 8–12
B) Ages 13–18
C) Ages 19–25
D) Cannot be determined

52. Which age group showed the smallest increase in screen time from 2010 to 2020?
A) Ages 8–12
B) Ages 13–18
C) Ages 19–25
D) All increased equally

53. Approximately how many more hours did ages 13–18 spend on screens in 2020 compared to 2010?
A) 1.5 hours
B) 2.5 hours
C) 4.5 hours
D) 6.0 hours

54. What is the overall trend shown in the graph?
A) Screen time decreased for all age groups
B) Screen time increased for all age groups
C) Screen time stayed the same for all age groups
D) Screen time increased only for ages 8–12

55. Based on the data, which statement is most accurate?
A) Younger children spend more time on screens than teenagers
B) All age groups increased screen time between 2010 and 2020
C) Screen time decreased significantly between 2010 and 2020
D) Adults over 25 spend the most time on screens

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Questions 56–60 refer to the following passage and hypothetical patient chart

A patient presents to the emergency department with chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea. The patient has a history of hypertension and high cholesterol. The patient is a 58-year-old male who smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. Vital signs: blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg, heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 94% on room air. An electrocardiogram shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

56. Based on the presentation, the most likely diagnosis is:
A) Asthma attack
B) Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
C) Panic attack
D) Gastroesophageal reflux disease

57. Which of the following is a risk factor mentioned in the passage?
A) Female gender
B) Smoking
C) Low cholesterol
D) Normal blood pressure

58. The patient's oxygen saturation is 94%. This is:
A) Normal
B) Slightly below normal
C) Dangerously low
D) Impossible to interpret

59. The ECG finding of ST-segment elevation suggests:
A) The heart is functioning normally
B) There is injury to the heart muscle
C) The patient is having a stroke
D) The patient has a lung infection

60. Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate intervention?
A) Send the patient home with aspirin
B) Activate the cardiac catheterization lab
C) Prescribe an antibiotic
D) Schedule an appointment for next week

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Questions 61–65 refer to the following two short passages

Passage A (pharmaceutical brochure):
"Our new cholesterol-lowering medication, LipiFree, has been shown in clinical trials to reduce LDL cholesterol by an average of 45% with minimal side effects. Most patients tolerate LipiFree very well. Ask your doctor if LipiFree is right for you."

Passage B (medical journal):
"A recent meta-analysis of 12 clinical trials found that while LipiFree reduces LDL cholesterol by 42–48%, it is associated with a 15% increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes compared to placebo. Patients with other diabetes risk factors should discuss alternatives with their physicians."

61. Passage A is primarily:
A) A research article
B) A persuasive advertisement
C) A patient case study
D) A government warning

62. What information does Passage B provide that Passage A omits?
A) The medication's effectiveness on LDL cholesterol
B) The brand name of the medication
C) The increased risk of type 2 diabetes
D) The recommendation to ask a doctor

63. A reader who read only Passage A would likely believe that LipiFree:
A) Has serious side effects
B) Is completely safe with minimal side effects
C) Causes diabetes in all patients
D) Is not effective

64. Based on both passages, which statement is most accurate?
A) LipiFree is dangerous and should never be used
B) LipiFree effectively lowers cholesterol but has a diabetes risk that should be considered
C) LipiFree does not lower cholesterol
D) Both passages agree that LipiFree is completely safe

65. The phrase "Ask your doctor" in Passage A serves what purpose?
A) To provide a disclaimer that shifts responsibility to the physician
B) To encourage direct-to-consumer advertising
C) To suggest that the medication is available without a prescription
D) To warn patients about side effects

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Questions 66–70 refer to the following instructions

How to create a strong password:

• Use at least 12 characters
• Include uppercase and lowercase letters
• Include numbers
• Include symbols such as ! @ # $ %
• Avoid common words, names, or dates
• Do not reuse passwords across different accounts
• Consider using a passphrase: a string of random words (e.g., "PurpleElephantDance$42")

66. Which of the following passwords best follows the guidelines?
A) password123
B) John1980
C) G7!kLp$9qRz@2
D) abcdefghijkl

67. According to the instructions, what is a "passphrase"?
A) A single dictionary word
B) A string of random words
C) Your birthdate
D) Your pet's name

68. Why does the instruction recommend avoiding common words?
A) Common words are hard to remember
B) Common words are easier for hackers to guess using dictionary attacks
C) Common words are too long
D) Common words cannot include numbers

69. The instruction "Do not reuse passwords across different accounts" is included because:
A) It is inconvenient to remember multiple passwords
B) If one account is compromised, all accounts become vulnerable
C) Passwords expire after one use
D) Different websites require different password formats

70. Based on the instructions, which is the LEAST secure practice?
A) Using a 14-character password
B) Using the same password for email and banking
C) Using symbols and numbers
D) Using a passphrase

Section 3: Integration of Knowledge & Ideas (Questions 51–75)

Questions 51–55 refer to the following graph description (no image provided, but questions are based on a typical bar graph)

A bar graph shows the average daily screen time (in hours) for three age groups in 2010 and 2020. For ages 8-12: 4.5 hours in 2010, 6.0 hours in 2020. For ages 13-18: 6.0 hours in 2010, 8.5 hours in 2020. For ages 19-25: 5.0 hours in 2010, 7.5 hours in 2020.

51. Which age group had the highest screen time in 2020?

A) Ages 8-12
B) Ages 13-18
C) Ages 19-25
D) Cannot be determined

52. Which age group showed the smallest increase in screen time from 2010 to 2020?

A) Ages 8-12
B) Ages 13-18
C) Ages 19-25
D) All increased equally

53. Approximately how many more hours did ages 13-18 spend on screens in 2020 compared to 2010?

A) 1.5 hours
B) 2.5 hours
C) 4.5 hours
D) 6.0 hours

54. What is the overall trend shown in the graph?

A) Screen time decreased for all age groups
B) Screen time increased for all age groups
C) Screen time stayed the same for all age groups
D) Screen time increased only for ages 8-12

55. Based on the data, which statement is most accurate?

A) Younger children spend more time on screens than teenagers
B) All age groups increased screen time between 2010 and 2020
C) Screen time decreased significantly between 2010 and 2020
D) Adults over 25 spend the most time on screens

Questions 56–60 refer to the following passage and hypothetical patient chart

A patient presents to the emergency department with chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea. The patient has a history of hypertension and high cholesterol. The patient is a 58-year-old male who smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. Vital signs: blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg, heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 94% on room air. An electrocardiogram shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.

56. Based on the presentation, the most likely diagnosis is:

A) Asthma attack
B) Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
C) Panic attack
D) Gastroesophageal reflux disease

57. Which of the following is a risk factor mentioned in the passage?

A) Female gender
B) Smoking
C) Low cholesterol
D) Normal blood pressure

58. The patient's oxygen saturation is 94%. This is:

A) Normal
B) Slightly below normal
C) Dangerously low
D) Impossible to interpret

59. The ECG finding of ST-segment elevation suggests:

A) The heart is functioning normally
B) There is injury to the heart muscle
C) The patient is having a stroke
D) The patient has a lung infection

60. Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate intervention?

A) Send the patient home with aspirin
B) Activate the cardiac catheterization lab
C) Prescribe an antibiotic
D) Schedule an appointment for next week

Questions 61–65 refer to the following two short passages

Passage A (from a pharmaceutical company brochure):
"Our new cholesterol-lowering medication, LipiFree, has been shown in clinical trials to reduce LDL cholesterol by an average of 45% with minimal side effects. Most patients tolerate LipiFree very well. Ask your doctor if LipiFree is right for you."

Passage B (from an independent medical journal):
"A recent meta-analysis of 12 clinical trials found that while LipiFree reduces LDL cholesterol by 42-48%, it is associated with a 15% increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes compared to placebo. Patients with other diabetes risk factors should discuss alternatives with their physicians."

61. Passage A is primarily:

A) A research article
B) A persuasive advertisement
C) A patient case study
D) A government warning

62. What information does Passage B provide that Passage A omits?

A) The medication's effectiveness on LDL cholesterol
B) The brand name of the medication
C) The increased risk of type 2 diabetes
D) The recommendation to ask a doctor

63. A reader who read only Passage A would likely believe that LipiFree:

A) Has serious side effects
B) Is completely safe with minimal side effects
C) Causes diabetes in all patients
D) Is not effective

64. Based on both passages, which statement is most accurate?

A) LipiFree is dangerous and should never be used
B) LipiFree effectively lowers cholesterol but has a diabetes risk that should be considered
C) LipiFree does not lower cholesterol
D) Both passages agree that LipiFree is completely safe

65. The phrase "Ask your doctor" in Passage A serves what purpose?

A) To provide a disclaimer that shifts responsibility to the physician
B) To encourage direct-to-consumer advertising
C) To suggest that the medication is available without a prescription
D) To warn patients about side effects

Questions 66–70 refer to the following instructions

How to create a strong password:

Use at least 12 characters
Include uppercase and lowercase letters
Include numbers
Include symbols such as ! @ # $ %
Avoid common words, names, or dates
Do not reuse passwords across different accounts
Consider using a passphrase: a string of random words (e.g., "PurpleElephantDance$42")

66. Which of the following passwords best follows the guidelines?

A) password123
B) John1980
C) G7!kLp$9qRz@2
D) abcdefghijkl

67. According to the instructions, what is a "passphrase"?

A) A single dictionary word
B) A string of random words
C) Your birthdate
D) Your pet's name

68. Why does the instruction recommend avoiding common words?

A) Common words are hard to remember
B) Common words are easier for hackers to guess using dictionary attacks
C) Common words are too long
D) Common words cannot include numbers

69. The instruction "Do not reuse passwords across different accounts" is included because:

A) It is inconvenient to remember multiple passwords
B) If one account is compromised, all accounts become vulnerable
C) Passwords expire after one use
D) Different websites require different password formats

70. Based on the instructions, which is the LEAST secure practice?

A) Using a 14-character password
B) Using the same password for email and banking
C) Using symbols and numbers
D) Using a passphrase

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Questions 71–75 refer to the following fictional product review

★★★★☆ (4 out of 5 stars)
"I've been using the AquaPure water filter for six months. Installation was simple and took about 10 minutes. The water tastes significantly better than tap water. I appreciate that the filter lasts for 100 gallons before needing replacement. However, replacement filters are expensive ($45 each). Also, the filter housing makes a slight humming noise when in use. Overall, it's a good product but consider the ongoing cost. Would recommend if you drink a lot of water."

71. The reviewer's overall opinion of AquaPure is:

A) Completely negative
B) Generally positive but with reservations about cost
C) Neutral with no clear opinion
D) Enthusiastic with no criticisms

72. Which of the following is mentioned as a positive feature?

A) Low cost of replacement filters
B) Silent operation
C) Simple installation
D) Lifetime warranty

73. The phrase "However, replacement filters are expensive ($45 each)" serves to:

A) Introduce a counterpoint to the positive aspects
B) Conclude that the product is worthless
C) Compare AquaPure to another brand
D) Provide installation instructions

74. Based on the review, for whom would the reviewer MOST recommend AquaPure?

A) Someone who drinks very little water
B) Someone who wants a completely silent filter
C) Someone who drinks a lot of water and values water taste
D) Someone with a very limited budget

75. The reviewer gave 4 out of 5 stars. If the manufacturer lowered the price of replacement filters, the reviewer would likely:

A) Lower the star rating
B) Raise the star rating
C) Keep the same rating
D) Remove the review entirely

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Section 4: Mixed Question Types (Questions 76–90)

Passage 17 (Questions 76–80)

The water cycle, also known as the hydrologic cycle, describes the continuous movement of water on, above, and below Earth's surface. The cycle begins with evaporation: liquid water from oceans, lakes, and rivers turns into water vapor due to solar energy. Transpiration, the release of water vapor from plants, also contributes. The water vapor rises and cools, condensing into tiny droplets to form clouds. When the droplets combine and become heavy enough, precipitation occurs—rain, snow, sleet, or hail. Some precipitation falls directly into bodies of water, while some falls on land. On land, water either runs off into streams and rivers (surface runoff) or infiltrates the ground to become groundwater. Groundwater slowly moves through soil and rock, eventually discharging into oceans or other water bodies, completing the cycle.

76. What is the primary purpose of this passage?

A) To argue that water is Earth's most important resource
B) To describe the stages of the water cycle
C) To compare evaporation and transpiration
D) To criticize human water usage

77. According to the passage, what causes water vapor to condense into clouds?

A) Increased sunlight
B) Rising and cooling of water vapor
C) Groundwater infiltration
D) Surface runoff

78. The word "infiltrates" most nearly means:

A) Pools on top of
B) Evaporates from
C) Slowly enters or seeps into
D) Rapidly flows over

79. Which of the following is NOT a form of precipitation mentioned in the passage?

A) Rain
B) Sleet
C) Fog
D) Hail

80. What happens to water that falls on land according to the passage?

A) It immediately returns to the ocean
B) It either becomes surface runoff or infiltrates the ground
C) It remains on the surface forever
D) It only evaporates directly

 

Questions 81–85 refer to the following email

I am writing to request an extension for the research paper due this Friday, March 15th. I have been ill with influenza since March 3rd, and I have attached a doctor's note confirming my absence from class. Despite my best efforts to continue working, I have been unable to complete the required library research or write the final draft. I am requesting a one-week extension until March 22nd. I have already completed my outline and preliminary bibliography. I am confident I can submit a high-quality paper by the new deadline. Thank you for your understanding.

81. What is James Carter's primary purpose in writing this email?

A) To complain about his illness
B) To request a one-week extension for his research paper
C) To ask for a doctor's note
D) To submit his completed paper

82. According to the email, what has James already completed?

A) The final draft of the paper
B) Library research and final draft
C) An outline and preliminary bibliography
D) A doctor's note

83. For what date is James requesting an extension?

A) March 15th
B) March 3rd
C) March 22nd
D) March 30th

84. What evidence does James provide to support his request?

A) A note from his roommate
B) A doctor's note confirming his illness
C) A letter from the library
D) His previous grades

85. The tone of this email can best be described as:

A) Demanding and angry
B) Apologetic and professional
C) Informal and casual
D) Confused and disorganized

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Questions 86–90 refer to the following passage

The American Revolution was not a single event but a series of events spanning nearly two decades. The Stamp Act of 1765, which taxed printed materials, ignited colonial resistance under the slogan "No taxation without representation." The Boston Tea Party of 1773 saw colonists dump 342 chests of British tea into Boston Harbor as protest against the Tea Act. In response, Parliament passed the Intolerable Acts (1774), which closed Boston Harbor and revoked Massachusetts's charter. The First Continental Congress met in September 1774 to coordinate colonial response. Armed conflict began at Lexington and Concord in April 1775. The Declaration of Independence was adopted on July 4, 1776, formally severing ties with Great Britain. The war continued until 1783, when the Treaty of Paris granted American independence.

86. What is the organizational pattern of this passage?

A) Compare and contrast
B) Chronological order
C) Cause and effect only
D) Problem and solution

87. According to the passage, what event directly led to Parliament passing the Intolerable Acts?

A) The Stamp Act
B) The Boston Tea Party
C) The Declaration of Independence
D) The Battle of Lexington and Concord

88. Which event occurred FIRST in the sequence described?

A) The Declaration of Independence
B) The Boston Tea Party
C) The Stamp Act
D) The Battle of Lexington and Concord

89. The phrase "No taxation without representation" was a colonial protest against:

A) The Intolerable Acts
B) The Stamp Act
C) The Tea Act
D) The Treaty of Paris

90. When was the Declaration of Independence adopted?

A) 1765
B) 1773
C) 1776
D) 1783

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Questions 91–95 (New Practice – Reading Comprehension)

Passage:

Renewable energy sources such as solar, wind, and hydropower are increasingly replacing fossil fuels worldwide. Solar panels convert sunlight into electricity using photovoltaic cells, while wind turbines generate power through kinetic energy from moving air. Hydropower plants use flowing water to turn turbines. Although renewable energy is cleaner and reduces greenhouse gas emissions, it faces challenges such as high installation costs and dependence on weather conditions.

91. What is the main idea of the passage?

A) Fossil fuels are the best energy source
B) Renewable energy is becoming more common but has challenges
C) Solar energy is the only renewable source
D) Wind turbines are outdated technology

92. Which is NOT mentioned as a renewable energy source?

A) Solar
B) Wind
C) Nuclear
D) Hydropower

93. What is one advantage of renewable energy?

A) High pollution
B) Low cost always
C) Reduced greenhouse gas emissions
D) Unlimited fossil fuel use

94. What is a challenge of renewable energy?

A) It is too clean
B) High installation cost
C) Too many fossil fuels
D) No electricity production

95. Wind turbines generate power using:

A) Heat energy
B) Chemical energy
C) Kinetic energy from air
D) Nuclear energy

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Questions 96–100 (Mixed Skills – Vocabulary & Reasoning)

96. What does the word “rapidly” most nearly mean?

A) Slowly
B) Quickly
C) Quietly
D) Carefully

97. If something is “temporary,” it is:

A) Permanent
B) Long-lasting
C) Not permanent
D) Very expensive

98. What is the synonym of “increase”?

A) Decrease
B) Grow
C) Break
D) Remove

99. Which sentence is grammatically correct?

A) She go to school every day
B) She going to school every day
C) She goes to school every day
D) She gone to school every day

100.                     What is the main purpose of a conclusion in a passage?

A) To introduce new ideas
B) To confuse the reader
C) To summarize the main points
D) To add unrelated details

 

Answers 

1–25 (Key Ideas & Details)

1. B – main idea = reef + threats
2. B – human activity implied in threats
3. B – spanning = extending across
4. B – focus on proclamation
5. B – direct fact from passage
6. D – B + C both correct
7. B – explains process
8. D – next likely energy/biology link
9. B – byproduct = secondary product
10. B – informs effects + prevalence
11. C – statistical evidence
12. B – lower risk inferred
13. B – correct sequence of discovery
14. B – not specified
15. C – neutral tone
16. C – instructions
17. C – timing of fillings
18. B – vigorously = strongly
19. B – chronological order
20. B – Renaissance revived classics
21. A – notable = famous
22. C – balanced view
23. B – made uniform
24. C – pandemic exposed weaknesses
25. B – benefits + criticisms

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26–50 (Craft & Structure)

26. B – metaphorical expression
27. C – reflective tone
28. B – life vs death
29. B – persuasive letter
30. B – emotional language
31. C – alternative solution
32. B – rejects blaming parents
33. B – many causes
34. C – systemic change needed
35. D – steps to solve problem
36. C – evacuate if large fire
37. B – fire extinguisher steps
38. A – compare/contrast
39. B – behavior rewarded
40. B – passive = not active
41. C – survey research
42. B – factual claim
43. B – younger adults
44. B – verify sources
45. B – no symptoms
46. B – general audience
47. C – lifestyle changes
48. B – refute skeptics
49. B – clear/doubtless
50. D – fossil fuels cause warming

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51–75 (Integration of Knowledge & Ideas)

51. B – highest = 13–18
52. A – smallest increase
53. B – 2.5 hours increase
54. B – all increased
55. B – all groups increased
56. B – heart attack symptoms
57. B – smoking risk factor
58. B – slightly low (94%)
59. B – heart muscle injury
60. B – emergency cath lab
61. B – advertisement
62. C – diabetes risk missing
63. B – seems very safe
64. B – benefits + risk
65. A – disclaimer responsibility
66. C – strong secure password
67. B – random words
68. B – easier to guess
69. B – prevents full account breach
70. B – same password = unsafe
71. B – positive but costly
72. C – easy installation
73. A – introduces drawback
74. C – heavy users
75. B – better price = higher rating

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76–100 (Mixed Skills)

76. B – explains water cycle
77. B – cooling causes condensation
78. C – seeps into ground
79. C – fog not precipitation
80. B – runoff or infiltration
81. B – request extension
82. C – outline done
83. C – March 22
84. B – doctor’s note
85. B – polite formal tone
86. B – chronological order
87. B – Boston Tea Party caused act
88. C – Stamp Act first
89. B – Stamp Act protest
90. C – 1776
91. B – renewable + challenges
92. C – nuclear not mentioned
93. C – less emissions
94. B – high cost
95. C – kinetic energy
96. B – rapidly = quickly
97. C – not permanent
98. B – grow
99. C – correct grammar
100. C – summary of passage